Re: Spain: Colonizer and colonized

["dms" <dmschanoes@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

John--

1. will do.

2. the point indeed is that slavery is part of the primitive accumulation,
but in and of itself, the extraction of wealth, even the combined social
labor of slavery does not create the distinguishing social relation of
production of capital.

3. Yes, slave running was practiced in New England prior to the war of 1812.
I picked that period since it was after the ban on the trade and the English
positioning of squadrons off the west coast of Africa to police it.

4. My remark about the inability of slavery as a system to reproduce itself
is based on my readings of the Caribbean which show colony after colony
unable to provide anything for its own sustenance in terms of means of
subsistence, infrastructure, education, welfare, even the cultivation of
land.  Most of the land held on slave plantations was held in abeyance.  The
inability for reproduction takes its simple, most barbaric form in the
destruction of slaves themselves.  Everything had to be provided for the
colonies (Brazil is different and is an empire and history unto itself
almost) and everything was ruined in its provision.  Cities existed as
administrative centers and transfer points for shipment of plantantion
products to the European centers.  No significant domestic markets emerged
in the colonies until the abolition of slavery and the former slaves
utilized land for the growing of non-export products.  This, of course,
terrified the colonizers, both in country and absentee, who knew that this
combination of free agriculture and domestic market meant the end of a
captured, and destitute, labor supply.