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Re: Forwarded from Nestor (India)



Nestor writes:

Lenin used this distinction to build his polemics against Russian populists
in _The development of capitalism in Russia_. He also made a highly
appreciative mention of this thesis, claiming that there was more science
in this discovery than in all bourgeois economy together.

Exactly. If you read the entire book, you'll notice the WHOLE POINT Lenin is trying to make is that capitalism in Russia was perfectly apt to develop and that it is better than the available alternative (the already corrupted, semi-dissolved peasant community). He showed that a certain level of capitalist development was already there, in spite of all hinders. I don't know how anyone can read that book and not get THAT idea. Lenin was insupportably repetitious. He said the same thing in 1,000 different ways.

Any form of capitalism that does not take this specific constitution is a
capitalism which can operate only as a sucking profit machine, profit that
is eventually realized in another formation. Thus, it is a form of
capitalism where the tendency of the rate of profit to fall does not appear
directly, because the structure displays no lower limit for wages but the
limit dictated by class struggles. Conversely, the secret disease of
capitalism, a disease that is built-in with the system, cannot be uprooted
in central economies, where wages cannot fall below a certain limit without
jeopardizing the whole building. In this sense, these forms of capitalism
are a powerful counter-tendency for the TRPF, and any departure from this
colonial status is a direct attack against CENTRAL capitalism. This
explains why semicolonial insurgency, and even the attempts to build a
self-centered capitalism, are so strongly opposed by the bourgeoisies at
the core. It is an ECONOMIC logics, the logics of the system itself, which
pits our poorest peasants against Mr. Rockefeller.

If you mean to say that Lenin showed that the collective peasant communities were helping depress wages, that is right. Precisely, since people in these communities could "survive" with low wages or no wages at all, then by competing with proletarians for jobs, they allowed capitalist farmers to lower wages to everyone. Now, is this a significant and lasting counter-tendency to declining profitability in the "core"? No. The Russian community was deadweight for the proletarians. Lenin uncovered here the reactionary role played by the Russian community. (No moral judgment against Russian peasant communards.) I doubt that Lenin said that this had any real significance in sustaining profitability in rich countries. Although I haven't read his book recently, I'm positive he didn't say THIS. Of course, one can argue that by keeping the wages low, the Russians can produce with lower costs and then export at lower prices the grain to Western Europe. Lower food prices in Europe would be a counter-tendency that slows down the decline of profitability. But then the argument that follows would be: Was this a lasting way for Western Europe to keep wages low? I doubt it, but even if it does, you can't lower the cost of production and boost productivity systematically in the "core" by keeping wages low THIS way. At best, that's a temporary solution, which lasts for as long as the community starves to death. Look, the community has no chance in this reasoning. How can a permanent counter-tendency be sustained this way? The only permanent, sustainable way to lower food prices in Western capitalism is through increases in productivity in agricultural production, etc. This doesn't come from having starved workers. This comes from better technology, etc. If the communities disappeared, capitalists would have to improve production in other ways. Tell me where, in his book, Lenin says this and I'll be glad to concede.

Still, Lenin is not going to decide this for our case. We need to have a sense of the order of magnitude of these things. It's not sufficient that the narrative feels right. In our times, what are the main factors driving food prices down in, say, the US? The US agriculture is extremely productive and it is the most productive producers who set the price. Therefore, food prices go down mainly because of technological innovation or cheap labor IN the US. The infra-subsistence wages paid to farm workers in the Third World must have a negligible effect. You can make a case that, in the US, low wages paid to farm workers have something to do with it. (These are low wages, but -- still -- several times over the wages paid to agro-proletarians or semi-proletarians in Mexico or Central America, countries of origin of these low-paid farm workers in the US.) Let's suppose that the saving that comes from paying low wages to farm workers is substantial (which I think it is, in some regions more than others) and it translates into lower prices of food. The next question is what percent of the average real income of US workers is spent in food? Back in the 19th century, if I'm correct, an economist named Engel showed that, as the real income of people increases, the percent of this income that goes to necessities (e.g., food and shelter) decreases. The average real income of workers in the US has gone up at the same rate as the growth of productivity in the last 50 years. I could go to www.bls.gov and try and find some figures to give myself an idea, but I suspect, that can't be sufficiently large to have any significant role in sustaining the overall profitability in the US.

Now, capitalism is a curious thing. In fact, capitalists can and will take advantage of almost any situation. That's their nature. They are extremely adaptive. So, if you tell me that as capitalism is stuck at a lower stage of development in Latin America, opportunistic US, European, and Japanese capitalists take advantage, I won't be surprised. Of course, they will. Their brains are programmed to see in any situation an opportunity to profit. Moreover, if you tell me that these particular capitalists, as they benefit from the status quo, use their super-profits to bolster the status quo and break and make laws, I won't be surprised either. But you can't say this situation benefits the strategic interest of capitalism. The opposite is true. It is affected strategically by it. Capitalists can be myopic and anti-capitalists, but only individually. The logic of the system, as a whole, ends up forcing them to do what is good for the entire system.

In general, if the super-structure tends to align itself with the capitalist structure, these phenomena -- which will always emerge, since the profit motive makes people violate laws, twist them, etc. -- will be under the constant pressure of a more open capitalist competition and they'll tend to be confined to be mere exceptions. The rule is, capitalism -- as a mode of production -- can't benefit in the long run from keeping the productive force down artificially in a country or region. The contrary is true: It benefits most from accelerating the growth of the productive force.

The idea that "capitalism" can revolutionize social relations without
establishing this concrete link between material production of goods
directed at the reproduction of means of production and the material
production of goods directed at the reproduction of direct human producers
is the kernel of any form of Marxism which, in one way or another,
dismisses "imperialism" as a _strictly economic_ phenomenon. In this sense,
it serves unconsciously the purposes of --Mr. Rockefeller. Julio speaks
Spanish fluently, so I would write down, for him, that "no hay que
confundir gordura con hinchazón"

I do not consider that "imperialism" is a strictly economic phenomenon. On the contrary, I consider it completely extra-economic. By this I mean, a set of methods that are not based on value or surplus-value production, but on sheer force. How my definition of imperialism and my view of the problems facing capitalist reproduction in Latin America or the "Third World" can benefit, consciously or unconsciously, Mr. Rockefeller is beyond my comprehension.
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