Re: English Revolution

["Nestor Miguel Gorojovsky" <Gorojovsky@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

En relación a Re: English Revolution,
el 23 Sep 00, a las 6:14, Jim Farmelant dijo:

>
>
> On Sat, 23 Sep 2000 17:50:29 +1200 Philip Ferguson
> <plf13@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

[...]

> > I can't remember who, but I recall someone once said (or wrote)
> > that in France the bourgeoisie beheaded the aristocracy whereas in
> > England they married them.
>
> Wasn't it the case that for the first half of the 18th century that
> France seemed to be moving in the same direction as England?  The
> distinctions between the aristocracy and bourgeoisie were not entirely
> clearcut.  For example France in the 17th century saw the rise of what
> were known as the 'noblesse de la robe' who were bourgeoisie that had
> achieved nobility through bureacratic services to the crown.  At the
> same time they tended to be hostile to the 'noblesse d'epee' who were
> the older nobility that descended from the warrior aristocrats of
> medieval times.  Internarriage between aristocrats and bourgeoisie
> were not uncommon.  And much of the France's economic development
> during the 18th century was bankrolled by aristocrats who invested in
> the new capitalist enterprises. So the question remains why France did
> not follow the English political path.

Yes, the question remains. But there are some possible inroads
towards an answer.  These should be sought, IMHO, in the different
path of English and French feudal system.

Néstor Miguel Gorojovsky
gorojovsky@xxxxxxxxxxxx