Anglo-Saxon Labour Party trend and Discontent with Unions

[Zeynep Tufekcioglu <zeynept@xxxxxxxx>]

A few questions about Europe and US.

Do you think that the fact that there is now a search for a "Labour Party",
rather than the existing Dems and Labs (yup, I'm abbreviating too) both in
Britain and US points to a trend?

This may not be a trend caused by the same dynamic. Is this a historical
contingency?

When people used to ask us a few years ago "why a trade union" (that is a
basic question in this country, with union density very low, and anti-union
laws very harsh) we'd say "for better wages for a better life." Now, that
answer does not work, because union's are losing their ground as the way
they operate nows is derived from their "welfare state", "corporatist" era.
So, it seems the case in other countries.

Is it possible or justified to say, that currently, the working people in
imperialist countries are also wondering "the unions don't really work the
way they are, and none of these parties can really protect our rights in
this sea of insecurity". And looking for answers?

And how do you think the discontent in France and Germany with union
leadership (very obvious in France, increasing in Germany) will find its
reflection in the politics? Can the SPD in Germany, or the CPF and/or the
Socialists in France still claim to be the answer?

Last, of course related to the "performance" of the real left (us, us, us);
could not the fascist/nationalist right mobilise this discontent in a very
unwanted (to say the least) manner?

Zeynep



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